6 responses

  1. Vipul Naik
    February 11, 2013

    Hi Nathan,

    This summary-cum-critique from you is certainly clearer to me than Kennan’s original paper (which I had skimmed through a while back). I am a little less enthusiastic about the usefulness of Kennan’s assumptions as an approximation of reality than you are, though, for a number of reasons.

    First, Kennan assumes a magical ingredient to account for the place premium that is unaffected by migration, i.e., even as large numbers of (say) Mexicans move to the United States, the place premium remains unaffected, though wages go down. If I understand you correctly, Kennan’s model assumes no diminution of the place premium. You say that this assumption is not completely realistic, but that the decline in labor productivity would not be too much. I think that this is one of the core points of contention at hand. It would be helpful at any rate to offer some concrete estimates that make clear just how sensitive Kennan’s conclusions are to this assumption, because it strikes me as a controversial assumption to have in place. In other words, if you assume a x% decline in the place premium after a certain amount of migration, how will that affect the model?

    Second, I’m a little confused about the idea of arbitrage through the product market. This seems to apply only to tradable goods, which include virtual stuff (like software or websites) as well as physical stuff that can be shipped (like computers and shoes) but does not include stuff like haircuts, massages, drivers, restaurant food, and other personal services that currently require physical proximity. Non-tradable goods form a significant chunk of the economy, and non-tradable sectors seem to be very important sources of employment for migrants, both currently and under open borders. Simply put, for instance, non-tradable goods (e.g., child care services, home cleaning, etc.) are services that, even if not intrinsically more productive in First World countries than in Third World countries, generate more value for the people who are being relieved of boring chores, simply because they, being richer and more productive, can afford to pay more Historically, the non-tradable sector, which was probably a much larger fraction of the economy before the Industrial Revolution and went down during the era of mass manufacturing, may well be seeing a rebound in absolute and proportional terms (with or without open borders). Is the argument that as long as there are at least some tradable goods connecting multiple markets, factor price equalization should apply for everything? Otherwise, I simply don’t see how non-tradable goods can be abstracted away from an analysis of migration. Am I misreading Kennan and/or you?

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